If A Person Is Having A Seizure And Is Unconscious, You Should Turn Them On Their Back.a. Trueb. False (2024)

Health High School

Answers

Answer 1

The given statement "If a person is having a seizure and is unconscious, you should turn them on their back" is True.

If someone is having a seizure, it is important to ensure their safety and take the following steps:
1. Ensure the area is safe. Remove any nearby objects that could potentially hurt the person.
2. Cushion the person's head. Place a pillow or folded blanket under the person's head to protect it.
3. Carefully turn the person onto their side or back. This helps keep the airway open and clear.
4. Do not attempt to restrain the person or place any objects in the person's mouth.
5. Once the seizure stops, monitor the person and provide comfort.

When someone is having a seizure and is unconscious, it is important to turn them on their back to protect them from injury. This will ensure that they do not choke or hit their head on the ground. It is also important to call for medical help and to stay with the person until medical help arrives.

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Related Questions

a health condition that may require reduced intake of saturated and trans fats
lactose inloerance
celiac disease
high blood pressure
high cholesterol

Answers

The health condition that may require reduced intake of saturated and trans fats is high cholesterol. Option 4 is correct.

Saturated and trans fats are known to increase levels of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol, which is commonly referred to as "bad" cholesterol. High levels of LDL cholesterol can lead to the formation of plaque in the arteries, which can increase the risk of heart disease and stroke.

Therefore, people who have high cholesterol or a family history of high cholesterol are often advised to reduce their intake of saturated and trans fats to help manage their cholesterol levels. This can be achieved by choosing lean meats, low-fat dairy products, and plant-based sources of protein, and avoiding processed foods and fried foods that are high in saturated and trans fats. Hence Option 4 is correct.

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how long can a dog live with congestive heart failure?

Answers

Answer: 6 months to 1 1/2 to 2 years

Explanation:

what do most scholars think the sacred disease actually was?

Answers

Most scholars thought the sacred disease actually was epilepsy.

Epilepsy is a set of neurological illnesses that are not infectious and are characterized by recurring epileptic seizures. An epileptic seizure is the clinical manifestation of an aberrant, excessive, purposeless, and coordinated electrical discharge in neurons in the brain.

The basic mechanism of epileptic seizures is excessive and aberrant neuronal activity in the cortex of the brain, which may be seen in an individual's electroencephalogram (EEG). The cause of most instances of epilepsy is unclear (idiopathic); however, some cases arise as a result of brain damage, stroke, brain tumors, brain infections, or birth abnormalities through a process known as epileptogenesis.

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In classical conditioning therapies, maladaptive symptoms are usually considered to be
A) unconditioned stimuli.
B) conditioned stimuli.
C) unconditioned responses.
D) conditioned responses.
E) neutral stimuli.

Answers

The correct answer here is option: B.

In classical conditioning therapies, maladaptive symptoms are usually considered to be conditioned responses. Classical conditioning is a type of learning in which a neutral stimulus is repeatedly paired with an unconditioned stimulus that naturally elicits a particular response. Over time, the neutral stimulus becomes a conditioned stimulus that also elicits the same response. In the case of maladaptive symptoms, these symptoms may have become associated with a particular trigger or situation through past experiences. In classical conditioning therapies, the goal is to break the association between the trigger and the maladaptive response by creating new associations with more adaptive responses. Hence, correct answer here is option: B.

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an excitatory postsynaptic potential happens when an excitatory neurotransmitter the postsynaptic membrane. true/false

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The given statement an excitatory postsynaptic potential happens when an excitatory neurotransmitter the postsynaptic membrane is true because excitatory neurotransmitters, such as glutamate, bind to their corresponding receptors on the postsynaptic membrane, causing depolarization of the membrane potential and an increased likelihood of an action potential being generated.

An excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) is a temporary change in the electrical potential on the postsynaptic membrane of a neuron, which is caused by the binding of an excitatory neurotransmitter to its receptors on the membrane. When a neurotransmitter, such as glutamate or acetylcholine, binds to a receptor on the postsynaptic membrane, it triggers the opening of ion channels, which allows positively charged ions, such as sodium (Na⁺) or calcium (Ca²⁺), to flow into the neuron. This influx of positive ions depolarizes the postsynaptic membrane, making it more likely to fire an action potential.

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term for a group of diseases that cause difficulty breathing; includes chronic bronchitis and emphysema

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The term for a group of diseases that cause difficulty breathing, including chronic bronchitis and emphysema, is Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD).

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) is a chronic disease that affects the lungs. COPD is an umbrella term for several respiratory diseases that can make breathing difficult.

Emphysema and chronic bronchitis are two of the most common COPD conditions. COPD is a progressive illness, which means that it gets worse over time. It can cause wheezing, coughing, and shortness of breath, which can eventually lead to disability and death. There are two forms of COPD: emphysema and chronic bronchitis.

Emphysema is a disease in which the air sacs in the lungs are damaged, making it difficult to breathe. Chronic bronchitis is a condition in which the air passages in the lungs become inflamed, making it hard to breathe. The main cause of COPD is smoking. COPD, however, can also be caused by exposure to air pollution or occupational pollutants.

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The probable question may be:

What is the term for a group of diseases that cause difficulty breathing; includes chronic bronchitis and emphysema?

Which of the following is true of a no-
goals approach?
A. It involves setting and monitoring goals
with a deadline.
B. It uses the SMART goal-setting system.
C. It substitutes current habits for slightly
healthier ones.
D. It leads you to develop unhealthy habits
over time.

Joel is at an amusem*nt park with his family. When he was younger, Joel was diagnosed with a seizure disorder but hasn’t had an episode in years. He separated from his family to go on a few rides by himself. After one of the rides, Joel falls to the ground and begins to convulse violently. The ride attendant, Emma, has been trained in first aid.
What should Emma do to help Joel?

Answers

Stay with Joel and make an emergency medical call: Emma should not leave Joel alone and make an urgent medical call. Joel should be kept clear of any furniture, like chairs or tables, that could hurt him.

What first aid procedure involves turning a student on their side during a convulsive seizure?

Gently tilt the subject to one side. Breathing will be made easier as a result. Everything sharp or hard should be removed from the vicinity of the individual. This may help to avoid harm.

What kind of seizure can significantly affect learning?

A pupil experiencing absence seizures, which are characterized by a momentary loss of consciousness, may be unable to hear or see what is going on in his class. As a result, his learning may be hindered by this loss of awareness of his environment.

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Fill The Blank? a ________ file is used to remind the medical assistant of an event or action that will take place at a future date.

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A tickler file is used to remind the medical assistant of an event or action that will take place at a future place.

A tickler file is a tool used to remind medical assistants of events or actions that will take place in the future. It is essentially a system for organizing and scheduling tasks, appointments, and other important deadlines. The tickler file consists of a set of folders or drawers, each representing a specific time period such as days of the week, weeks of the month, or months of the year.

When an event or action needs to be scheduled, it is placed in the appropriate folder or drawer according to its due date or deadline. The medical assistant can then check the tickler file regularly to stay on top of upcoming tasks and ensure that everything is completed on time. This helps to improve productivity and organization in a medical office or clinic.

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what is the thin muscle that stretches from the lateral and anterior thigh to the medial part of the thigh?

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The thin muscle that stretches from the lateral and anterior thigh to the medial part of the thigh is called the adductor longus.

A muscle in the thigh called the adductor longus is in charge of the thigh's adduction, or movement inward towards the body's centerline. This muscle, which starts from the front of the pubic bone and travels to the medial surface of the femur, is thin, flat, and triangular in shape.

Moreover, when the thigh is flexed at the hip, this muscle plays a supporting role in hip flexion and the forwards movement of the thigh. Also, it is employed while skating, dancing, and swimming, all of which require rotation of the thigh.

A wider group of muscles known as the hip adductors includes the adductor longus. Together, these muscles allow the hip joint to flex and move in various directions, which serves to maintain the pelvis and enhance balance while engaging in physical activity.

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a 45-year-old man visits his primary caregiver for an examination. he has a mean blood pressure of 84 mm hg and a heart rate of 80 beats/min. further tests by a cardiologist revealed that the patient has moderate aortic valve stenosis. which one of the set of changes would be expected in this patient?

Answers

The patient with moderate aortic valve stenosis would likely experience an increase in left ventricular afterload, which can lead to an increase in left ventricular end-diastolic pressure and, ultimately, a decrease in left ventricular stroke volume and cardiac output. This could lead to symptoms such as shortness of breath, fatigue, and chest pain.

Decreased pressure in the heart's left ventricle: As the aortic valve gets narrower, the left ventricle must work harder to pump blood through the valve, which may result in greater pressure in the ventricle.

The heart may not be able to pump enough blood to meet the body's requirements because of the reduced blood flow through the aortic valve, resulting in a reduced cardiac output.

Risk of heart failure increased: Over time, the heart may weaken as a result of having to work harder to pump blood through the narrower valve.

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in an ingredient list, added sugars can go by many different names. list five of them.

Answers

Answer: ending in "-ose"

Explanation:

examples of added sugars on food labels are displayed as dextrose, fructose, glucose, lactose, maltose, and sucrose.

a ______ is the instrument used to determine the calorie content of a food.a. Food composition tablesb. Nutrient content:c. bomb calorimeterd. Spectrophotometry

Answers

A Bomb Calorimeter is the instrument used to determine the calorie content of a food. Therefore the correct option is option C.

The calorimeter calculates the food's calorie content by measuring the amount of heat that is emitted when it is entirely burned or combusted. For the purpose of nutrition labelling, this technique is frequently used to calculate the calorie content of foods and beverages.

While spectrophotometry, a method for measuring the light absorption by molecules in a sample, can be used to quantify the concentration of specific compounds in food, food composition tables and nutrient content databases are other tools for estimating the calorie content of foods based on their nutritional composition.

Therefore the correct option is option C.

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According to Seligman, if a person who is faced with considerable stress and difficulty in his or her life displays an optimistic, upbeat attitude, he or she is likely to function better psychologically and physically. He called this

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According to Seligman, if a person who is faced with considerable stress and difficulty in his or her life displays an optimistic, upbeat attitude, he or she is likely to function better psychologically and physically. He called learned optimism.

Martin Seligman defined learned optimism in his 1990 book Learned Optimism. An upbeat attitude has a lot of advantages: Optimists perform better academically and are in better physical and mental health. On the other side, pessimism is significantly more widespread, and pessimists are more prone to quit up in the face of difficulty or experience sadness. By adopting a fresh perspective on their responses to adversity, Seligman challenges pessimists to become optimists. The optimism that resulted—one that developed from pessimism—is a learnt optimism. So, the optimist's perspective on failure might be summed up as follows: "What happened was an unlucky occurrence (not personal), and actually simply a setback (not permanent) for this one, of many, aims (not pervasive)".

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inflammation of the small intestine caused by ingesting substances contaminated with viral and bacterial pathogens is called by

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Inflammation of the small intestine caused by ingesting substances contaminated with viral and bacterial pathogens is called enteritis.

Enteritis is an inflammation of the inner lining of the small intestine that is usually caused by a virus or bacteria. Common symptoms of enteritis include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, and dehydration. If left untreated, enteritis can cause serious complications such as malnutrition, sepsis, and shock. In severe cases, enteritis can even be life-threatening. Treatment for enteritis typically includes rest, fluids, and medications such as antibiotics and anti-diarrheal drugs. In some cases, surgical intervention may be needed. To prevent enteritis, it is important to avoid contaminated food and water, practice good hygiene, and cook food thoroughly.

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Myopia, or nearsightedness, means that the eye sees distant objects well, but near objects appear blurry. True or False

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The given statement "Myopia, or nearsightedness, is a vision condition in which close objects appear clearly, but distant objects appear blurry" is true because is a condition in which the eyeball is too long, causing light rays to focus in front of the retina rather than directly on it.

This causes distant objects to appear blurry, while near objects appear clear. Myopia is a common vision issue, affecting up to one-third of the world's population.

As a result of being nearsighted, people often have difficulty seeing things in the distance. They may have trouble reading road signs or chalkboards in school, for example. Glasses or contact lenses are frequently used to treat myopia by compensating for the eyes' focusing issues. In some cases, LASIK surgery may be used to treat myopia.

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How Long Can Sperm Live Inside The vagin* After Intercourse?

Answers

Sperm can live inside the vagin* for up to five days after intercourse, though the chances of pregnancy decrease significantly after the first 24-48 hours.

This is because sperm require fertile cervical mucus to survive and travel towards the egg, and the fertile window typically lasts around 5-6 days in a menstrual cycle, with the highest chance of pregnancy occurring during ovulation. However, the lifespan of sperm can be influenced by various factors such as the acidity of the vagin*, use of lubricants, and the presence of infections.

It's important to note that even a small amount of sem*n or pre-ejacul*te fluid can contain thousands of sperm, so there is always a risk of pregnancy with unprotected intercourse. Using effective contraception is the best way to prevent unwanted pregnancy.

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almost all dietary fat is absorbed in this organ with the help of micelles is called

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The organ that absorbs almost all dietary fat with the help of micelles is called small intestine.

The small intestine is a long tube-like organ located between the stomach and the large intestine, and is the primary site of nutrient absorption in the digestive system. When fats are consumed, they are broken down into smaller components, including fatty acids and monoglycerides, in the presence of bile acids produced by the liver and stored in the gallbladder. These smaller components are then absorbed by the small intestine with the help of micelles, which are tiny droplets composed of bile acids and phospholipids that aid in the absorption of fats.

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the recommended dimensions for a high school soccer field are?

Answers

In the US, total length between each end zone is 120yards and width is approximately 53 yards!
This was for my highs school so it might vary but around those values!

To ensure that the ventricles are filled with blood from the atria prior to ventricular contraction, movement through this part of the conduction pathway proceeds slowly.
A. Purkinjie fibers B. Right or left bundle branch C. Sinoatrial node
D. AV bundle (bundle of His) E. Atrioventricular node

Answers

To ensure that the ventricles are filled with blood from the atria prior to ventricular contraction, movement through this part of the conduction pathway proceeds slowly - Atrioventricular node. Therefore the correct option is E.

The conduction system in the human heart is a collection of specialized cardiac muscle cells that are capable of generating and conducting electrical impulses through the heart muscle (myocardium).

This mechanism is responsible for controlling the heart rate by making sure that the cardiac muscles contract and relax in the correct sequence.

The sinoatrial (SA) node produces an electrical impulse that travels through both atria, causing them to contract in unison. The ventricles contract, pushing blood out of the heart and into the body.

The atrioventricular (AV) node slows down the electrical signal before allowing it to travel through the bundle of His, right and left bundle branches, and Purkinje fibers into the ventricles.

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The discovery of what disease related to nutrition was especially helpful in improving the health of sailors?

Answers

Scurvy is a disease that is caused by a deficiency of vitamin C in the diet. The symptoms of scurvy include weakness, fatigue, joint pain, and bleeding gums.

In the past, scurvy was a common problem among sailors, who often spent long periods at sea without access to fresh fruits and vegetables, which are rich sources of vitamin C.

The importance of vitamin C in preventing and treating scurvy was discovered in the 18th century by the Scottish physician James Lind, who conducted a series of experiments on sailors. Lind found that providing sailors with citrus fruits, which are high in vitamin C, could prevent and treat scurvy. This discovery led to the adoption of measures to ensure that sailors had access to fresh fruits and vegetables on long sea voyages, which helped to improve their health and reduce the incidence of scurvy.

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When giving CPR to a person and waiting for EMS personnel to
arrive, a bystander tells you to stop, saying, "it's no use and that
looks hard." You continue because you know that is not a reason
to stop CPR. True or False?

Answers

Answer:

true

Explanation:

Patients with osteoporosis often suffer _________ fractures of the vertebral bodies due to loss of bone mass. A. spiral
B. epiphyseal
C. greenstick
D. compression
E. transverse

Answers

Patients with osteoporosis often suffer Compression fractures of the vertebral bodies due to loss of bone mass. Therefore the correct option is option D.

Osteoporosis is a medical condition in which bones become fragile and brittle. The human body continually absorbs and replaces bone tissue; however, the production of new bone tissue is unable to keep up with the rate at which old bone tissue is lost as a result of osteoporosis.

Bone fractures, particularly in the spine, hip, or wrist, are one of the most severe complications of osteoporosis.

The following are some of the factors that can lead to osteoporosis: Inactivity or prolonged periods of bed rest. Lack of adequate calcium and vitamin D intake. Cigarette smoking, High consumption of alcohol use.

Some medications, such as glucocorticoids and some anticonvulsant drugs. Hormonal changes caused by menopause, cancer treatment, or other medical conditions that affect the body's hormone production. Therefore the correct option is option D.

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Andrea is setting up some new electrical equipment in her esthetician's room. She wants to make sure to set up the equipment so that she can
comfortably and ergonomically use it for services. The set-up of the equipment should allow Andrea to sit or stand up straight and keep her wrists
and arms in what type of position?

A.in a floppy and bendable position, constantly moving

B.in a rigid position that keeps wrists very straight

C.in a comfortable straight or slightly flexed position

D. in a 90-degree angle at all times

Answers

Answer: D

Explanation: that is how you are supposed to type or C if it is for back posture

which lipoprotein transports cholesterol back to the liver?

Answers

The lipoprotein that transports cholesterol back to the liver is called high-density lipoprotein (HDL).

HDL is often referred to as the "good" cholesterol because it has a protective effect against cardiovascular disease. HDL is synthesized in the liver and small intestine and acts as a scavenger, picking up excess cholesterol from the blood vessels and other tissues and transporting it back to the liver for processing and elimination from the body. This process is known as reverse cholesterol transport and is an important mechanism for maintaining healthy cholesterol levels in the body. High levels of HDL are associated with a lower risk of heart disease, while low levels of HDL are a risk factor for cardiovascular disease.

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Which of the following risk factors can have an immediate impact on a person's health?
A.
eating too much junk food
B.
not exercising for at least 30 minutes a day
C.
not wearing a seat belt while driving
D.
smoking one cigarette

Answers

Modifiable lifestyle risk variables and their relationships to the age at which chronic disease first manifests itself include smoking, drinking, dieting, and physical activity.

What are three different risk factors that can have an impact on someone's health?

Poor diet, smoking, drinking too much alcohol, and other health risk behaviours are all thought to contribute in some manner to sickness and mortality from chronic diseases.

What are the health-related risk factors?

A risk factor is something that makes someone more likely to get sick, get hurt, or suffer harm. Risk factors include encounters with violence or abuse in the home. They may result in risky actions, substance abuse, and chronic illnesses.

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Which substance is a major mineral?
A. chromium
B. copper
C.manganese
D. zinc
E. magnesium

Answers

Answer: The major minerals are calcium, phosphorus, magnesium, sulfur, potassium, sodium, and chloride

Explanation:

E is the answer Im pretty sure.

At which stage is a person said to be in deep sleep?

Answers

At Stage 3 person is said to be in deep sleep.

When a person is in stage 3 sleep, sometimes referred to as N3 or deep sleep, it is more difficult to rouse them up. When the body continues to relax, N3 sleep results in a reduction in muscle tone, pulse, and breathing rate.

Delta waves, a recognised pattern of brain activity, are present during this time. Because of this, stage 3 is also known as delta sleep or slow-wave sleep (SWS).

The first half of the night is when you spend the most time in a deep sleep. N3 phases typically last 20 to 40 minutes during the early sleep cycles. These phases of sleep become shorter as you sleep longer and more time is spent in REM sleep.

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what is sperm count following sterilization reversal is reported with code?

Answers

The ICD-10 code used to report sperm count following sterilization reversal is Z31.82. This code is used to indicate a fertility testing encounter.

This code is used to indicate a fertility testing encounter, which may include testing of sperm count or other fertility-related evaluations, following a reversal of a previous sterilization procedure.

Sterilization reversal is a surgical procedure that is performed to restore fertility in individuals who have previously undergone sterilization procedures such as tubal ligation or vasectomy. After the procedure, it may be necessary to monitor sperm count to determine if the reversal was successful in restoring fertility. The use of the Z31.82 code indicates that the encounter is for fertility testing following sterilization reversal.

In summary, the ICD-10 code used to report sperm count following sterilization reversal is Z31.82, and it is used to indicate a fertility testing encounter following a previous sterilization procedure.

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what is the difference between a fracture and a break

Answers

Answer: There's no difference between a fracture and a break. A fracture is any loss of continuity of the bone. Anytime the bone loses integrity—whether it's a hairline crack barely recognizable on an X-ray or the shattering of bone into a dozen pieces—it's considered a fracture.

Explanation:

If A Person Is Having A Seizure And Is Unconscious, You Should Turn Them On Their Back.a. Trueb. False (2024)
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